The Sodom thing
Nov 27, 1996 01:16 AM
>> Who wrote the story? And where was it specified, if anywhere, that the
>>evil in Sodom and Gommorah was sexual in nature?
>It *could* be inferred from Genesis 19:5, where the inhabitants of Sodom
>want to "know" the men who are with Lot (the guy who had a salt wife).
>The Henrew word used *can* have a sexual implication, and the OT is
>famous for people "knowing" each other, but there is no direct evidence
>to support this meaning other than tradition - which is sometimes true,
>or based on truth. Gen 13:13 memerly says that the inhabitants of Sodom
>were wicked. Tradition has given us the word "sodomite" - the meaning
>of which is clear enough.
I think the clincher that it is sexual in nature is when Lot scurried out of
his house to address the "knowing" demands of the Sodomites by imploring
them not to do the "wicked" thing, but to instead take his "two virgin
daughters." Seems being Lot's guest was far more advantageous than being
his daughter. (G. 19:3-8)
However, God, clearly showing his homophobic side, destroyed Sodom - but
found Lot to be worthy of saving. How nice.
'Course then God made Lot "the guy who had a salt wife." Which showed a
grave lack of foresight, since that somehow implied to the daughters that it
now was their duty to carry on the "clan" and they then raped their father -
after realizing their father wouldn't let them marry anyone.
I don't think God knows what He's doing or what He really wants here - He's
just got bigger lightening bolts than the rest of us. . .which may show size
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