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general question on western astrology ...

Jan 23, 1994 03:10 PM
by John Mead

The astrology as practiced in the western world is based on a
planetary orbital scheme which does NOT account for the precession
(gyroscopic) of the earths rotational axis.  Everyone knows this cycle
is roughly 25000 years long (for one revolution).  Indeed the western
world recognizes this precision only when accounting for the
astrological ages (i.e we will enter the age of aquarius in a couple
hundred years.  so the dawn of this age is occuring now).

My question is WHY do they ignore this. My own humble opinion insists
that the actual planets (which are the centers of the energy i.e. MASS)
are the governors which create the influences accounted for within the
astrological systems. Clearly I am at odds with the mainstream
astrologers. I have not found an explanation (metaphysical) as to why
the planets themselves are NOT the REAL centers of the influence.

I would appreciate it if someone could straighten my thinking out
on this matter.  I seem to recall a quote by Blavatsky that the western
Astrology only *shadows* the actual (i.e. true occult) astrological
sciences.  I will try to locate this if needed.

sincere ask for help --

John Mead

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