Theos-Talk Archives (October 1996 Message tl00008)

Four points about Holy Writ:

1) BOOK III, chapter III (116,145) page 126 HPB writes "if we want
to be sure that Jesus was a nazarene - even though with ideas of
a new reformer - we must not search for the proof at the gospels,
but at its original versions. Tischendorf, at his greek translation
refers to Luke 4:34 as "Iesou Nazarene" and syriac text we read
"Iasua, thou, oh nazarene".

Why HPB rerfers to Luke 4:34 ? The gospel used by Church (that
HPB critices) ALSO refers to Jesus as nazarene. There is no
contradiction here with syriac text.

2) chapter V (191,217) page 215 "At 1Cor2:9 a passage cited as Holy
Writ, doesn't find at OT. This passage was taken from apocripha Eliah'Revelation
in accordance with Origen and Jerome".

But 1Cor2:9 refers literraly to Isaiah 64:3 !!!!

3) at the same page HPB continues: "Mark 1:2 there is a citation from
Malaqui 3:1, that is atributed to Isaiah".

Again no contradiction. Malaqui 3:1 is correct but the passage is
also present in Isaiah 40:3.

4) chapter IV (133,185) page 172 "Whatever that be the words atributed
to Jesus, Peter or Paul and others, none of this words are a
worship act, and Jesus himself never refers his identity with his
Father".
Wrong. John 10:30; John 17:21-22

Abrantes