Theos-Talk Archives (August 1996 Message tl00559)

In message <4F985F7127@serv.peb.ufrj.br>, ABRANTES@serv.peb.ufrj.br
writes
>It is not, however, difficult to show that the fact of his bishopric is so well
>attested as to be historically certain.

All of the writers who you quote are Christian bishops of a *much* later
period.  We have their claims, but no actual evidence separate from
those claims.  In any case, it is (IMO) doubtful whether the office of
"bishop" even existed at such an early period.  Apostles, yes; Bishops,
no.  One account gives Linus (a Briton) as first "bishop" of Rome, and
not Clement, but this too is a later Christian source (See Ante-Nicene
Fathers somewhere for this).  As I support the modern view that 1
Timothy is not by Paul, then there is no evidence before the writings of
such as Clement and Ignatius of any Bishoprics in the early churches,
and we are into the second century by then.

Alan
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